arXiv2016
Given an analytic equivalence relation, we tend to wonder whether it is Borel. When it is non Borel, there is always the hope it will be Borel on a "large" set -- nonmeager or of positive measure. That has led Kanovei, Sabok and Zapletal to ask whether every proper $σ$ ideal satisfies the following property: given $E$ an analytic equivalence relation with Borel classes, there exists a set $B$ which is Borel and $I$-positive such that $E\restriction_{B}$ is Borel. We propose a related problem -- does every proper $σ$ ideal satisfy: given $A$ an analytic subset of the plane with Borel sections, there exists a set $B$ which is Borel and $I$-positive such that $A\cap(B\timesω^ω)$ is Borel. We answer positively when a measurable cardinal exists, and negatively in $L$, where no proper $σ$ ideal has that property. Assuming $ω_{1}$ is inaccessible to the reals but not Mahlo in $L$, we construct a ccc $σ$ ideal $I$ not having this property -- in fact, forcing with $I$ adds a non Borel section to a certain analytic set with Borel sections, and a non Borel class to a certain analytic equivalence relation with Borel classes. Various counterexamples are given for the case of a $\mathbf{Δ_{2}^{1}}$ equivalence relation as well as for the case of an improper ideal.